Portfolio Risk Optimizer Target Return
Find the stock-bond weights that hit a target return, then compute portfolio volatility, Sharpe ratio and 95% VaR with the two-asset Markowitz formula.
Portfolio Risk Optimizer Target Return
Calculator
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Formula: w_stock = (R_target - R_bond) / (R_stock - R_bond); sigma_p = sqrt(w1^2*s1^2 + w2^2*s2^2 + 2*w1*w2*s1*s2*rho)
Worked example — 60/40 Stock-Bond split | Volatility: 11.52% | Sharpe: 0.304 | VaR(95%): -10.9%
Formula
w_stock = (R_target - R_bond) / (R_stock - R_bond); sigma_p = sqrt(w1^2*s1^2 + w2^2*s2^2 + 2*w1*w2*s1*s2*rho)
The stock weight is determined by linear interpolation between bond and stock returns. Portfolio volatility uses the Markowitz two-asset formula where w1,w2 are weights, s1,s2 are volatilities, and rho is correlation. The Sharpe ratio equals (portfolio return - risk-free rate) / portfolio volatility.
Worked Examples
Example 1: Moderate Growth Portfolio
Problem:Target 8% return with stocks (10% return, 18% volatility) and bonds (5% return, 6% volatility), correlation 0.2, risk-free rate 4.5%.
Solution:Stock weight = (8 - 5) / (10 - 5) = 3/5 = 60% Bond weight = 40% Portfolio variance = (0.60 x 0.18)^2 + (0.40 x 0.06)^2 + 2(0.60)(0.40)(0.18)(0.06)(0.2) = 0.011664 + 0.000576 + 0.001037 = 0.013277 Volatility = sqrt(0.013277) = 11.52% Sharpe = (8 - 4.5) / 11.52 = 0.304
Result:60/40 Stock-Bond split | Volatility: 11.52% | Sharpe: 0.304 | VaR(95%): -10.9%
Example 2: Conservative Income Portfolio
Problem:Target 6% return with same asset assumptions. Find the allocation.
Solution:Stock weight = (6 - 5) / (10 - 5) = 1/5 = 20% Bond weight = 80% Portfolio variance = (0.20 x 0.18)^2 + (0.80 x 0.06)^2 + 2(0.20)(0.80)(0.18)(0.06)(0.2) = 0.001296 + 0.002304 + 0.000346 = 0.003946 Volatility = sqrt(0.003946) = 6.28% Sharpe = (6 - 4.5) / 6.28 = 0.239
Result:20/80 Stock-Bond split | Volatility: 6.28% | Sharpe: 0.239 | VaR(95%): -4.3%
Frequently Asked Questions
What is portfolio optimization and how does it work?
Portfolio optimization, rooted in Harry Markowitz's Modern Portfolio Theory (1952), aims to find the best asset allocation that achieves a desired return with minimum risk, or maximizes return for a given risk level. The key insight is that combining assets with imperfect correlation reduces overall portfolio risk below the weighted average of individual asset risks. Portfolio Risk Optimizer Target Return uses the two-asset Markowitz mean-variance framework to find the stock-bond split needed for your target return, while calculating the resulting portfolio volatility, Sharpe ratio, and Value at Risk.
What is the Sharpe ratio and what values are considered good?
The Sharpe ratio measures risk-adjusted returns by dividing the portfolio's excess return (above the risk-free rate) by its volatility. It tells you how much extra return you earn per unit of risk taken. A Sharpe ratio below 0.5 is generally considered poor, 0.5-1.0 is acceptable, 1.0-2.0 is good, and above 2.0 is excellent. Most diversified portfolios achieve Sharpe ratios between 0.4 and 0.8 over long periods. The optimal (tangency) portfolio shown in Portfolio Risk Optimizer Target Return maximizes the Sharpe ratio along the efficient frontier.
How does correlation between assets reduce portfolio risk?
Correlation measures how two assets move together, ranging from -1 (perfectly opposite) to +1 (perfectly together). When correlation is below +1, combining assets produces a portfolio with lower volatility than the weighted average of individual volatilities. At correlation 0, assets move independently, providing significant diversification benefit. At correlation -1, you could theoretically create a zero-risk portfolio. Historically, stocks and bonds have had a correlation between -0.2 and +0.4. Lower correlations amplify the diversification benefit, which is why alternative assets like real estate and commodities are often added to portfolios.
What is Value at Risk (VaR) and how should I interpret it?
Value at Risk (VaR) at 95% confidence estimates the minimum return you might experience in the worst 5% of years. For example, a VaR of -15% means there is a 5% chance of losing more than 15% in any given year. Portfolio Risk Optimizer Target Return uses the parametric method: VaR = Expected Return - 1.645 x Volatility, assuming normally distributed returns. In practice, financial returns have fat tails, so actual worst-case losses can exceed VaR estimates. Conditional VaR (CVaR) or Expected Shortfall provides a more conservative measure by averaging all losses beyond the VaR threshold.
What are typical return and volatility assumptions for stocks and bonds?
Historical long-term averages for US markets: Large-cap stocks (S&P 500) return approximately 10% with 15-18% volatility. Investment-grade bonds return approximately 5% with 5-7% volatility. Treasury bills (risk-free proxy) return approximately 3-5%. International developed stocks return 8-9% with 17-20% volatility. These are nominal figures; subtract 2-3% for inflation-adjusted real returns. For forward-looking projections, many advisors use lower assumptions: 7-8% for stocks and 3-4% for bonds, reflecting current valuations and interest rate environments.
What is the efficient frontier and where does my target-return mix sit on it?
The efficient frontier is the curve of portfolios offering the highest expected return for each level of volatility. With two assets it runs from the minimum-variance mix to whichever asset has the higher expected return, so any target above the minimum-variance return is efficient by construction, while mixes below it are dominated by a slightly higher stock weight offering more return at less volatility. The frontier table shows the volatility you pay as the stock weight rises; the curve bends leftward because correlation below 1 holds combined volatility under the weighted average.
How does the tangency portfolio differ from the allocation that hits my target return?
The target-return weight is pure interpolation between the two expected returns and ignores the risk-free rate. The tangency portfolio instead maximizes the Sharpe ratio, the highest excess return per unit of volatility available from the risky assets. Under Tobin's separation theorem every investor holds that same risky mix and dials risk up or down by borrowing or lending at the risk-free rate. If your target mix differs from the tangency mix, you are accepting a lower Sharpe ratio to hit a return number.
Why can a target return above the stock return never be solved here?
The stock weight comes from (R_target - R_bond) divided by (R_stock - R_bond), which exceeds 1 whenever the target is above the higher expected return, and falls below 0 when it is under the lower one. The calculator clamps the weight to the zero-to-one range because a long-only two-asset portfolio cannot leave the span of its inputs. Reaching beyond that range requires leverage or shorting the bond, both of which add borrowing cost and margin risk that this model does not price.
How much do estimation errors in expected returns move the optimal weights?
Mean-variance optimization is far more sensitive to expected returns than to volatilities or correlation, because the return inputs enter the weight calculation directly while risk inputs enter through a square root. Shifting an assumed equity return by a single percentage point can swing the target-return weight by many points, which is why optimizers are sometimes described as error maximizers. Practical responses include using constrained weight ranges, shrinking return estimates toward a common average, and testing several scenarios.
What is the difference between the minimum-variance portfolio and the maximum-Sharpe portfolio?
The minimum-variance portfolio is the leftmost point on the frontier and depends only on the two volatilities and their correlation, not on expected returns: its stock weight is (sb squared minus ss·sb·rho) divided by (ss squared plus sb squared minus 2·ss·sb·rho). With 18 percent stock volatility, 6 percent bond volatility and correlation 0.2 that gives roughly 4.5 percent in stocks. The maximum-Sharpe portfolio sits further right, since it trades some of that stability for excess return over the risk-free rate.
References
Background & Theory
History
Reviewed for accuracy by Daniel Agrici, Founder & Lead Developer · Editorial policy
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